- - , B-Greek, www, [0], 30 Apr 2005, Wilson Hines, I Tim 3.16: Why "seen of Angels"; "OPSTHE ANGELOIS" Why wouldn't most translations use something other than "seen?" I understand that the DBL defines it first by "see," however the other definitions are:
1. Pay attention to.
2. Understand.
3. Visit
4. Experience
5. Learn about
6. Cause to happen
The BDAG, of course, goes into much more detail, but still supports my personal thoughts here. The reason, I ask why "seen," as the KJV, NIV and NKJV puts it, is because
the Angels have "seen" Him since their creation. My further thoughts are:
1. They would "Pay attention to" Him. I.e., Attend or serve.
2. They would "Understand" Him. They aren't omniscient, so after the cross and His resurrection they possibly could see Him in a different light, or become more "understanding" of Him and His role.
3. They could "visit" him.
4. They could "experience," that in itself is a word with a whole range of meaning.
5. They could "Learn more about", ie. No. 2.
6. But, they can't "Cause to happen." He is omnipotent.
- Carl W. Conrad; The "passive" WFQH normally carries an intransitive sense "appeared"--
this is really a standard sense. In view of this narrative credal sequence with a sort of homoeoteleuton of verb-forms in -QH, it is reasonable to want to give a passive sense to WFQH here. In view of the Christological confessional sequence here I think that this WFQH
refers to the risen and exalted Christ.